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Texas hold em rules - calling a bet? |
Ok, I was in a "friendly game" with some buddies last weekend. 20$ buy-in, no limit hold em. Seems like pretty much everyone is saying pretty much the same thing, that's good enough for me, thanks everyone. The official tournament rule is that P2 in your scenario did not make an official call. He actually asked the question "I mean I have to call, right??". This is not a declaration, it is simply a player talking the situation out. P1 shouldn't have flipped his cards over so soon. Player 2 posed a question ("I mean, I have to call now, right"), he did not state that he was calling, nor did he move his chips across the line. bad play, the guy who showed his cards lost cause he had to wait for the bet to be in - anyway in poker you gotta pay to see my cards guy did not pay he should not have shown his hand ya... that sucks for P1... there was no "official" call so P2 was not obligated to pay out on the final bet. that being said I have seen many people pull a stunt like this to catch guys who aren't paying attention or are too new to know any better. It is not a call. When he said "I have to call, right?" he was thinking out loud. Until he says "I call," or moves his chips into the pot he has not called. The other guy just jumped the gun. No it wasn't a call. You Can talk about calling or not calling all you want but until you actually say call or drop chips over the line into the pot, you have not called. Nope, it's not an official call. P1 exposed his cards before any action was made. If P2 had simply announced "call" or had actually physically moved his chips into the middle, it would have been a call. Verbal calls are binding. It seems this is a question to get a read. The Player who said "I have to Call, Right?" did ask a question. It depends on their intent as well. Looks like their intent was to fold. |
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